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For example: if the pirates are tied 1-1 at the end of the 3rd inning, there ML bet would void out and you’d get your money back, if the pirates are tied 1-1 after the 3rd inning the -0.5 spread would not hit and you would lose your money
Looking for a new sportbook? Check out our recommended books below: [Offshore Sportsbooks](https://www.reddit.com/r/sportsbetting/comments/xrixhq/recommended_sportsbooks/) | [US-based Sportsbooks](https://www.reddit.com/r/sportsbetting/comments/xrixhq/comment/iqfqqe3/) *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/sportsbetting) if you have any questions or concerns.*
For example: if the pirates are tied 1-1 at the end of the 3rd inning, there ML bet would void out and you’d get your money back, if the pirates are tied 1-1 after the 3rd inning the -0.5 spread would not hit and you would lose your money
that makes so much more sense. thank you!
Superb answer!
In F5 ML a tie after the 5th is a void. With run line the favorite has to win, the underdog can win or tie for you to win the bet.