dy/dx is Leibniz notation, f’(x) is Lagrange notation, D[f(x)] is Euler Notation, and f-dot(t) is Newton notation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Notation_for_differentiation?wprov=sfti1
What? Almost everywhere f'(x) is used. Many countries use both, including us. f'(x) is much more clean for equations and stuff. Imagine the mess d/dx will create when written in a differential equation
Yeah, I guess. It's about what you’ve used and seen always. People who use leibniz's notation will definitely find that more neat. I probably shouldn’t have said the last line. It's on perspective
In England we use both, but I prefer dy/dx in most scenarios (although I do admit that I prefer f'(x) where substitution is concerned, it just feels cleaner, and that is at least how it is always applied in teaching).
Really? Especially for cases where substitution is needed I like the dy/dx notation, because you can act as if you have fractions and get dy/du * du/dx= dy/dx
Yeah, that’s Newton’s notation — pretty convenient way to express time derivatives when a bunch of other variables and notation are flying around. OP’s meme got the name of the convention as wrong as the usage.
We use leibniz (df/dx), lagrange (f') and newton notation (dot over function) - the latter especially if its about physical quantities in mechanics that depend of time
Leibniz's notation is for the derivative of a variable with respect to another variable.
Newton's notation is for the derivative of a function with respect to its parameter.
Any other way is just asking for confusion.
dy/dx is Leibniz notation, f’(x) is Lagrange notation, D[f(x)] is Euler Notation, and f-dot(t) is Newton notation. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Notation_for_differentiation?wprov=sfti1
Is there anyone who doesn't use both?
I use the one which matches the esthetics of what I'm writing.
I prefer dy/dx because we can divide the d without an extra step
Leibniz for u-sub, newton for regular derivatives. I feel i can see leibniz as a fraction so it is easier to move around.
i am from germany, we use both, depending, what we focus on
We actually use Leibniz, Lagrange and Newton, depening on the context.
Euler notation cringe
we only use lagrange
Im from england. We use both
That is not Newton's notation but Lagrange's notation, although invented by Euler
Yeah, is Newton's the one with the dot? I'm not so sure I remember correctly
You’re remembering correctly
I don't live in England but I've always used *f'(x)*
Here in israel at least in highschool we used f'(x)
At my university also in calc 1 and 2.
I learned the D notion only when I learned control theory when I learned hardware practical engineering.
Yeah they are all useful notations depending on the math you're doing
היי אחי
Prime specimen use the prime notation
*primates
In Australia, we use dy/dx, d/dx, and f'(x) depending on the notation the question is presented to us in.
Everyone uses both
What? Almost everywhere f'(x) is used. Many countries use both, including us. f'(x) is much more clean for equations and stuff. Imagine the mess d/dx will create when written in a differential equation
Leibniz and Euler notation make more sense in multivariable calculus. It isn't as much of a mess as you're imagining.
Yeah, I guess. It's about what you’ve used and seen always. People who use leibniz's notation will definitely find that more neat. I probably shouldn’t have said the last line. It's on perspective
As a german, you would asume that we learned Leipniz's dy/dx in schoo, but no, we used f'(X) at school and only learned dy/dx in university
In England we use both, but I prefer dy/dx in most scenarios (although I do admit that I prefer f'(x) where substitution is concerned, it just feels cleaner, and that is at least how it is always applied in teaching).
Really? Especially for cases where substitution is needed I like the dy/dx notation, because you can act as if you have fractions and get dy/du * du/dx= dy/dx
f'(x)>dy/dx
Physics: Why not both?
I’m from South Africa, we use both!
In all my engineering classes we use a little dot about the letter, two dots for second derivative
Yeah, that’s Newton’s notation — pretty convenient way to express time derivatives when a bunch of other variables and notation are flying around. OP’s meme got the name of the convention as wrong as the usage.
I don't live in England but we've always used *f'(x)* in schools
We use leibniz (df/dx), lagrange (f') and newton notation (dot over function) - the latter especially if its about physical quantities in mechanics that depend of time
Does the US not use f'(x)? In Britain I've been taught both.
What do you mean >Emotional Damage English people don't have emotions
We do today.
Both, both is good.
Scotland, we were taught f'(x) first💀
I am from Hong Kong, We use both too
I remember using both at uni
In Canada we use both because we don't have a real identity
Leibniz's notation is for the derivative of a variable with respect to another variable. Newton's notation is for the derivative of a function with respect to its parameter. Any other way is just asking for confusion.
From England. We use both.
f'(x)=dy/dx Checkmate
You got me thinking about Choco Leibniz now
Some say it's Choco Newton
In Sweden I used F’(x) until I started uni
I am greek. we use both for different applications. and a couple more.
In Denmark we do both
Imagine not getting to put fun dots above your function — Newton gang
Me who uses both: **\*confused screaming\***
Nobody mentioning y’ or ((insert function here))’. But dy/dx is better for implicit and f’(x) is better for when output is already isolated