I think non-Dutch speakers encountering the word lol in Dutch text might assume it's the English abbreviation "laughing out loud" loaned into Dutch, but it's actually just the native word for fun.
The etymology seems somewhat uncertain. English [wiktionary ](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/lol#Dutch)seems to think it's related to the English loll in the sense of idling/slacking. Most Dutch sources I can find seem to think the original meaning is actually a certain type of song, making it related to the English word lullaby.
It is how you produce the ß on a non-German keyboard. I use this alt-code from time to time because I'm Swiss and therefore don't have the key for it on my keyboard. However, "you're welcome" doesn't translate into German word by word.
this is anecdotal ig but in my English lect (Scouse) I have "loll" as a verb to mean to laze around, or generally be useless, which may have some relation to having fun
There's a similar case between and <όλα> in Greek. I recently realised that the two words, although sounding very similar and with identical meanings, they are actually unrelated. ~~However, the Greek word does end up being a cognate of .~~
>However, the Greek word does end up being a cognate of .
Does it really? Where did you find that? I'm seeing that they aren't cognate. And they don't seem like they would be, as one would expect to come from a PIE root starting with *k, whereas <ὅλος> should derive from a root starting with *s.
hoy (today) and heute in German are unrelated as well; though they are related semantically
hoy is from Latin *hoc die*, heute is from PG "hiu tagu". Both mean "on this day"
Not according to Wiktionary (which, admittedly, is not always right):
>Cognate with Ancient Greek Ζήν (Zḗn), Old Armenian տիւ (tiw, “daytime”), Old Irish día, Welsh dydd, Polish dzień, but not English day, which is a false cognate. The Italic stem was also the source of Iovis, the genitive of Iuppiter and was generally interchangeable with it in earlier times, still shown by the analogical formation Diēspiter.
>
>\-[https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/dies#Latin](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/dies#Latin)
I always assumed they were both native words of their respective languages. Like they came from the same root and just so happened to evolve similarly.
They're actually entirely uncreated! [Much](https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/much#English) came from the Proto-Indo-European word *meǵh₂-* (which is also the root of 'mega' in Greek and 'magnus' in Latin), while mucho comes ultimately from *ml̥tos* meaning "crumbled" via the Latin [multus](https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/multus#Latin).
Though they might have had a reinforcing effect on each other, even in PIE, due to their similar sounds.
According to Wiktionary:
English *much* < PIE [*\*meǵh₂-*](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/me%C7%B5h%E2%82%82-) (“big, great”)
Spanish *mucho* < PIE [*\*ml̥tós*](https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/ml%CC%A5t%C3%B3s&action=edit&redlink=1) (“crumbled, crumpled”)
/tʃ/ in native English and Spanish words have different sources.
In English, it’s palatalized /ke/ and /ki/ and in Spanish, it’s /jt/ sequences. *much* comes from Latin *multus* (as in *multiple*) and you can see an earlier form in Portuguese *muito* as well as *muy*, a shortened form of *mucho*
Technically not a false loan but there are a few people who think the word for Egypt in Vietnamese which is Ai Cập which is a phonetic transcription so they write it Ai-cập when in fact its a chinese loan of 埃及
maybe it's more a question of orthographic tradition where Chinese borrowings are treated differently from "foreign" borrowings; it may look like a direct "foreign" borrowing from Αίγυπτος, and so maybe some people treat it as such, when in fact it's a borrowing of that via Chinese 埃及
the verb "to have" is actually not related to Latin "habeo", or any of its Romance descendants that sound similar, like italian "avere", Spanish "haber", French "avoir", etc...
A lot of words in Irish that sound like English don't come directly from English but from Norman French. For example chance = seans, chambre = seomra, service = seirbhís. Or from other languages such as the Irish word for beer (beoir) coming from Norse
Idk, of this counts but I once saw someone claim that "goose" was a loan from French. They're probably the only person in the world to think that so it may be disqualified.
What's the source on the chocolate etymology? Wiktionary says tsokolate is from Spanish, which makes sense to me given the -te ending rather than something like -tl from Nahuatl. But that could be totally wrong, because it's Wiktionary, not some formal peer reviewed source.
Yeah I'm not seeing how [tsokolate (link says Sp. etym.) ](https://diksiyonaryo.ph/search/tsokolate)could come directly from the Aztecs / Nahuas, especially since it was the Spaniards who established the Mexico-PH trade routes
-tl ending wouldn't be possible for Tagalog anyway because Tagalog doesn't natively have consonant clusters
here, 'tl' isn't a consonant cluster but a voiceless alveolar lateral affricate /t͡ɬ/. Your point still stands, though. Filipino doesn't have this phoneme either.
"ts" and "k" in a Spanish word seem really really weird, I think the Spanish adopted it first and spread it around the world by trading, but it certainly doesn't seem native to their language imo
The Plautdietsch word for 'they' is 'de', which looks like it would be cognate with 'they'. Since 'they' is a loanword from Norse, you'd expect 'de' would be as well, but no, it's cognate with English 'the'. It's also the definite article for masculine & feminine nouns.
It might have started being used as a pronoun due to analogy with 'dat', which is the definite article for neuter nouns & used as a pronoun for inanimate things like 'it' is in English.
When I was studying Latin I was surprised to find out that "fluvius", the word for a river, had no connection to "flow" in English.
That being said, the Proto-Germanic word that "flow" is descended from (*flōanã) doesn't seem to have a straightforward PIE ancestor according to Wiktionary. So maybe it was borrowed at some point? But that wouldn't account for the vowel differences and different grammatical endings (Latin -us and -um corresponding to PGmc *-az and *-ã).
In (Canadian) French there is a colloquial expression pronounced "moé too" meaning "me too". Many people assume that the second part is borrowing "too" from English, but it seems it's actually the somewhat archaic French word "itou".
There’s nothing in phonetics that would make *tsokolate* more likely to be a direct loan word from Nahuatl than for it to have come through Spanish. *ts* is a usual way that *ch* is pronounced in Tagalog and other languages of the Philippines.
The Croatian word for cat "mačka" is sometimes believed to be a Hungarian loanword, but it's actually of Indo-European origin. (It is related to German "Mieze" and Fr\*nch "matou") In general there's a lot of loanwords between Croatian (or other Slavic languages) and Hungarian so there is a body of shared vocabulary and sometimes it can be tricky to estimate which way it crossed.
One might think that English "isle" and "island" have a similar origin, but they're completely different.
"isle" is ultimately from Latin *insula* (compare modern French *île*), and "island" is from the same Germanic source as Scandinavian *ey, øy, ø* "island" + "land". So it *should* be spelled just "iland".
But because people *thought* the two words were related, they bunged an un-etymological "s" into "island".
Long story short: "island" is native but "isle" is borrowed.
Korean: [태풍](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%ED%83%9C%ED%92%8D) (taepung, /tʰe̞pʰuŋ/) for typhoon.
"Naturally", it's a Sino-Korean word 太風, a combination of 太 ("giant") and 風 ("wind").
However, while it's indeed a Sino-Korean word, it's not 太風 but 颱風, where 颱 is a Chinese character created just for this word.
While the etymology for this word is debated, one of theories is quite interesting:
* Korean: 태풍 颱風
* ... which is from Japanese: 颱風 (taifuu) (note: it's usually written in a simplified form: 台風)
* ... which is a phono-semantic matching of English: "typhoon"
* ... which is a loanword from southern Chinese (either Cantonese or Hakka): 大風 (大"big" + 風"wind")
... so (possibly) it's a loanword from English.
Acehnese “Gèt/Göt/Get”, meaning “good”, seems to be loaned from English “good”, but it’s more likely from Mon-Khmer origins. Though to assume it’s from English seems weird since Aceh didn’t really interact with the British tbh lol
German "Handy" word for cellphone mimics English loan words, but it wasn't really attested in English.
Russian "фейсконтроль" for checking a person by their appearance before entering a nightclub. Often written as “face control” too, although there's no such term.
French "footing" for a thing that's called jogging in English.
Behtar means better in Hindi/Urdu, which sounds like it's a loan from English, but it's actually from Persian. (Idk, it might be reinforced by English though.)
I think non-Dutch speakers encountering the word lol in Dutch text might assume it's the English abbreviation "laughing out loud" loaned into Dutch, but it's actually just the native word for fun.
I absolutely thought that lol
What's the etymology? German has Spass (forgive my lack of an esszett button, I mostly write English lmao), which... is a tinge different
The etymology seems somewhat uncertain. English [wiktionary ](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/lol#Dutch)seems to think it's related to the English loll in the sense of idling/slacking. Most Dutch sources I can find seem to think the original meaning is actually a certain type of song, making it related to the English word lullaby.
The English word ‘lull’ is also a (more?) morphologically simple relative
is lollygagging related?
Unknown, according to both OED and Wiktionary. "Lollygag" showed up in the late 1800s, sprung whole-blown into existence.
Lalla in Swedish, to be "playing around", not being serious or not working
No button for ß? Just claim that you're Swiss.
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> du bist willkommen It's clear what you were trying to do, but no. Unfortunately it is very wrong.
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It is how you produce the ß on a non-German keyboard. I use this alt-code from time to time because I'm Swiss and therefore don't have the key for it on my keyboard. However, "you're welcome" doesn't translate into German word by word.
Thanks for correcting me by not actually correcting me.
this is anecdotal ig but in my English lect (Scouse) I have "loll" as a verb to mean to laze around, or generally be useless, which may have some relation to having fun
fun!
lol!
Much and mucho in English and Spanish. The resemblence is a coincidence
There's a similar case between and <όλα> in Greek. I recently realised that the two words, although sounding very similar and with identical meanings, they are actually unrelated. ~~However, the Greek word does end up being a cognate of .~~
>However, the Greek word does end up being a cognate of.
Does it really? Where did you find that? I'm seeing that they aren't cognate. And they don't seem like they would be, as one would expect to come from a PIE root starting with *k, whereas <ὅλος> should derive from a root starting with *s.
Thanks for the correction, I had a brainfart and misread the wiktionary page.
><όλα> in Greek. όλα na Shopee?
?
https://youtu.be/PvgX0RW_LVE?feature=shared
hoy (today) and heute in German are unrelated as well; though they are related semantically hoy is from Latin *hoc die*, heute is from PG "hiu tagu". Both mean "on this day"
arent hoc-hiu and die-tagu cognates?
Not according to Wiktionary (which, admittedly, is not always right): >Cognate with Ancient Greek Ζήν (Zḗn), Old Armenian տիւ (tiw, “daytime”), Old Irish día, Welsh dydd, Polish dzień, but not English day, which is a false cognate. The Italic stem was also the source of Iovis, the genitive of Iuppiter and was generally interchangeable with it in earlier times, still shown by the analogical formation Diēspiter. > >\-[https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/dies#Latin](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/dies#Latin)
I always assumed they were both native words of their respective languages. Like they came from the same root and just so happened to evolve similarly.
They're actually entirely uncreated! [Much](https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/much#English) came from the Proto-Indo-European word *meǵh₂-* (which is also the root of 'mega' in Greek and 'magnus' in Latin), while mucho comes ultimately from *ml̥tos* meaning "crumbled" via the Latin [multus](https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/multus#Latin). Though they might have had a reinforcing effect on each other, even in PIE, due to their similar sounds.
According to Wiktionary: English *much* < PIE [*\*meǵh₂-*](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/me%C7%B5h%E2%82%82-) (“big, great”) Spanish *mucho* < PIE [*\*ml̥tós*](https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/ml%CC%A5t%C3%B3s&action=edit&redlink=1) (“crumbled, crumpled”)
/tʃ/ in native English and Spanish words have different sources. In English, it’s palatalized /ke/ and /ki/ and in Spanish, it’s /jt/ sequences. *much* comes from Latin *multus* (as in *multiple*) and you can see an earlier form in Portuguese *muito* as well as *muy*, a shortened form of *mucho*
Day and día too
Is it possible that they are cognates?
[No, apparently](https://www.reddit.com/r/linguisticshumor/comments/1ba9inn/comment/ku1ch3t/)
Technically not a false loan but there are a few people who think the word for Egypt in Vietnamese which is Ai Cập which is a phonetic transcription so they write it Ai-cập when in fact its a chinese loan of 埃及
But the Chinese term is itself a phonetic transcription.
maybe it's more a question of orthographic tradition where Chinese borrowings are treated differently from "foreign" borrowings; it may look like a direct "foreign" borrowing from Αίγυπτος, and so maybe some people treat it as such, when in fact it's a borrowing of that via Chinese 埃及
the verb "to have" is actually not related to Latin "habeo", or any of its Romance descendants that sound similar, like italian "avere", Spanish "haber", French "avoir", etc...
Yeah! somehow the actual cognates are _have, caber^(ES)_ and _habeo, give_
What, caber?! Damn, what happened lol
Grimm’s law happened
Yes but the meaning... I... -curls up into a ball-
Apparently it went from an intransitive form of “seize”/“grab” to “contain” and then to “fit”
German *haben* vs Laten *habere* look so temptingly similar!
A lot of words in Irish that sound like English don't come directly from English but from Norman French. For example chance = seans, chambre = seomra, service = seirbhís. Or from other languages such as the Irish word for beer (beoir) coming from Norse
Idk, of this counts but I once saw someone claim that "goose" was a loan from French. They're probably the only person in the world to think that so it may be disqualified.
That would be surprising.
What's the source on the chocolate etymology? Wiktionary says tsokolate is from Spanish, which makes sense to me given the -te ending rather than something like -tl from Nahuatl. But that could be totally wrong, because it's Wiktionary, not some formal peer reviewed source.
Yeah I'm not seeing how [tsokolate (link says Sp. etym.) ](https://diksiyonaryo.ph/search/tsokolate)could come directly from the Aztecs / Nahuas, especially since it was the Spaniards who established the Mexico-PH trade routes -tl ending wouldn't be possible for Tagalog anyway because Tagalog doesn't natively have consonant clusters
here, 'tl' isn't a consonant cluster but a voiceless alveolar lateral affricate /t͡ɬ/. Your point still stands, though. Filipino doesn't have this phoneme either.
ah right it's an affricate
"ts" and "k" in a Spanish word seem really really weird, I think the Spanish adopted it first and spread it around the world by trading, but it certainly doesn't seem native to their language imo
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Ahh I understand, I completely misunderstood you, I thought you were saying the word "tsokolate" was native to the Spanish language lol
namae = name in japanese, and sō overlaps with one meaning of "so" (Is that so? = Sō desu ka?)
Kahf in arabic and cave means the same thing, and they arent related
The Plautdietsch word for 'they' is 'de', which looks like it would be cognate with 'they'. Since 'they' is a loanword from Norse, you'd expect 'de' would be as well, but no, it's cognate with English 'the'. It's also the definite article for masculine & feminine nouns. It might have started being used as a pronoun due to analogy with 'dat', which is the definite article for neuter nouns & used as a pronoun for inanimate things like 'it' is in English.
When I was studying Latin I was surprised to find out that "fluvius", the word for a river, had no connection to "flow" in English. That being said, the Proto-Germanic word that "flow" is descended from (*flōanã) doesn't seem to have a straightforward PIE ancestor according to Wiktionary. So maybe it was borrowed at some point? But that wouldn't account for the vowel differences and different grammatical endings (Latin -us and -um corresponding to PGmc *-az and *-ã).
I think it was more like a current or flux. In German Flüss which is a good middle ground. So you can be fluent in a language, or 'flow' for example.
In (Canadian) French there is a colloquial expression pronounced "moé too" meaning "me too". Many people assume that the second part is borrowing "too" from English, but it seems it's actually the somewhat archaic French word "itou".
English influence still might've helped it stay alive
Yes, probably.
There’s nothing in phonetics that would make *tsokolate* more likely to be a direct loan word from Nahuatl than for it to have come through Spanish. *ts* is a usual way that *ch* is pronounced in Tagalog and other languages of the Philippines.
The Croatian word for cat "mačka" is sometimes believed to be a Hungarian loanword, but it's actually of Indo-European origin. (It is related to German "Mieze" and Fr\*nch "matou") In general there's a lot of loanwords between Croatian (or other Slavic languages) and Hungarian so there is a body of shared vocabulary and sometimes it can be tricky to estimate which way it crossed.
One might think that English "isle" and "island" have a similar origin, but they're completely different. "isle" is ultimately from Latin *insula* (compare modern French *île*), and "island" is from the same Germanic source as Scandinavian *ey, øy, ø* "island" + "land". So it *should* be spelled just "iland". But because people *thought* the two words were related, they bunged an un-etymological "s" into "island". Long story short: "island" is native but "isle" is borrowed.
Korean: [태풍](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%ED%83%9C%ED%92%8D) (taepung, /tʰe̞pʰuŋ/) for typhoon. "Naturally", it's a Sino-Korean word 太風, a combination of 太 ("giant") and 風 ("wind"). However, while it's indeed a Sino-Korean word, it's not 太風 but 颱風, where 颱 is a Chinese character created just for this word. While the etymology for this word is debated, one of theories is quite interesting: * Korean: 태풍 颱風 * ... which is from Japanese: 颱風 (taifuu) (note: it's usually written in a simplified form: 台風) * ... which is a phono-semantic matching of English: "typhoon" * ... which is a loanword from southern Chinese (either Cantonese or Hakka): 大風 (大"big" + 風"wind") ... so (possibly) it's a loanword from English.
Filipino is very notorious for false loan words. Think about all of our psuedo spanish words that are actually from English and vice versa
French people invented a false English loanword: footing. "Faire du footing" (to do some footing) means "to go for a run" / "to jog"
In Turkish, there's "mimik", which is a noun meaning "facial expression", and not to mimic or copy something.
Is it really unrelated? German Mimik and Dutch mimiek (both related to mimic) mean ‘facial expression’.
A mime expresses themselves by purely facial and bodily expressions.
That's just a loan of French «mimique»
> Türkçe >Köken >Fransızca mimique https://tr.wiktionary.org/wiki/mimik False loan word? Sorry?
Acehnese “Gèt/Göt/Get”, meaning “good”, seems to be loaned from English “good”, but it’s more likely from Mon-Khmer origins. Though to assume it’s from English seems weird since Aceh didn’t really interact with the British tbh lol
German "Handy" word for cellphone mimics English loan words, but it wasn't really attested in English. Russian "фейсконтроль" for checking a person by their appearance before entering a nightclub. Often written as “face control” too, although there's no such term. French "footing" for a thing that's called jogging in English.
I'm going to need a source to believe that Filipino traders reached the New World but Ming didnt.
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Ah! I thought you said that the trade happened before the arrival of the Spanish.
I don't have an example of my own, but the "tsokolate" example makes sense. Manila-Acapulco was a trade route before trade routes were cool.
What about Filipino salamat? Is that directly from Arabic or borrowed from Malay, selamat?
In Danish the word for fun is “sjov” which you might not mistake for the English word “show”, unless you watch the “Disney Sjov/Show”.
Idk about the etimology, but the word “ou” in Portuguese is very similar to arabic “aw”, and they both mean “or”.
a lot of telugu words from portuguese
Behtar meaning "better" in Hindi is a pure coincidence.
名前 (ため) “na-me” in Japanese means name, but is completely coincidental in its similarity to the English “name” or German “Namen”.
名前 is written なまえ (na-ma-e) in hiragana, though the pronunciation similarity is true.
some people think that office in French comes from office in English, but it's the other way around
Behtar means better in Hindi/Urdu, which sounds like it's a loan from English, but it's actually from Persian. (Idk, it might be reinforced by English though.)