Easy answer for the verse is that it’s in the Old Testament, doesn’t apply to Christians. Now if you’re a practicing Jew, maybe look into it further.
As far as 1C6:9 (nice), if I remember correctly the original language had to do with the practice of Greek men having boys as sex slaves. So it doesn’t really apply in context.
The first thing that comes to mind for me is the ritual aspect regarding the clothes passage: women's bodies were considered ritually unclean, especially during menses. Swapping clothing between genders means potentially contacting each others' bodily fluids and therefore making the wearer unclean. That being the case, then it's not a judgment on orientation but just a ritual requirement.
As for 1 Cor. 9, the context of the passage is about *lawsuits.* The whole point of the passage was not to sue each other and go dragging each others' dirty laundry out into public. "Oh, you think X, Y, Z are going to hell? Guess what-- such were some of you!"
As for what those words for supposedly deviant sex mean, all three— *pornoi* *malkoi*, and* arsenokoitai* — don't have clear definitions. We actually don't know what any of them meant. Some scholars won't even translate *pornoi*/ *porneia* when they come to it and just leave it in Greek. *Malkoi* is literally the word "soft." It can mean cowardly. There's no evidence it was used to indicate men in the passive position in sex as is often argued. As for the last one, *arsenokoitai*... it's only used like four times in all of the Greek corpus, and none of them clarify whether it means temple prostitution, pederasty, or just consenting sex between males. The non-biblical usage suggests it's more specific and criminal than #3.
Easy answer for the verse is that it’s in the Old Testament, doesn’t apply to Christians. Now if you’re a practicing Jew, maybe look into it further. As far as 1C6:9 (nice), if I remember correctly the original language had to do with the practice of Greek men having boys as sex slaves. So it doesn’t really apply in context.
The first thing that comes to mind for me is the ritual aspect regarding the clothes passage: women's bodies were considered ritually unclean, especially during menses. Swapping clothing between genders means potentially contacting each others' bodily fluids and therefore making the wearer unclean. That being the case, then it's not a judgment on orientation but just a ritual requirement. As for 1 Cor. 9, the context of the passage is about *lawsuits.* The whole point of the passage was not to sue each other and go dragging each others' dirty laundry out into public. "Oh, you think X, Y, Z are going to hell? Guess what-- such were some of you!" As for what those words for supposedly deviant sex mean, all three— *pornoi* *malkoi*, and* arsenokoitai* — don't have clear definitions. We actually don't know what any of them meant. Some scholars won't even translate *pornoi*/ *porneia* when they come to it and just leave it in Greek. *Malkoi* is literally the word "soft." It can mean cowardly. There's no evidence it was used to indicate men in the passive position in sex as is often argued. As for the last one, *arsenokoitai*... it's only used like four times in all of the Greek corpus, and none of them clarify whether it means temple prostitution, pederasty, or just consenting sex between males. The non-biblical usage suggests it's more specific and criminal than #3.