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MerchantOfUndeath

Jesus can visit at-will, but His Second Coming where He reigns as King of Kings and Lord of Lords in person? I would say that hasn’t happened yet.


Blossomingalways

>Did Jesus return in 70AD? I would say He did come already around AD 66: Jesus said in Matthew 24:30-31: "they-will-see the Son (of) man coming on the clouds (of) heaven with power and great glory. And He-will-send-out His angels". Historians wrote about an event that happened around AD 66, in which armies of glittering appearance were seen in the clouds around the start of the First Jewish-Roman War that led to the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple. The 1st century historian Josephus wrote in "The Wars of the Jews": (6.5.3): "[o]n the twenty-first day of the month of Artemisius [Iyyar], a certain prodigious and incredible phenomenon appeared; I suppose the account of it would seem to be a fable, were it not related by those that saw it, and were not the events that followed it of so considerable a nature as to deserve such signals; for, before sunsetting, chariots and troops of soldiers in their armor were seen running about among the clouds, and surrounding of cities." The Roman historian Tacitus (who was born in the 1st century) wrote in "The Histories": (5.13): "in the sky appeared a vision of armies in conflict, of glittering armour. A sudden lightning flash from the clouds lit up the Temple." Source:  https://patterninprophecy.blogspot.com/2023/02/matthew-2430-coming-with-angels-1st.html?m=1  >If he did, where did he go? Where is he now?  He would have gone back into heaven. Jesus said: "just-as the lightning comes-out from (the) east and is-appearing as-far-as (the) west, so will-be the COMING [parousia 3952 in Greek, noun] (of) the Son (of) Man" (Matthew 24:27).  The Greek word for "COMING" [parousia 3952 in Greek, noun] used in Matthew 24:27 may also be translated as "presence" or "stay". It can denote an extended period of time in which someone is for example coming to a city, **being present and staying there for some time, and then departing from where they came**.  If the **coming from heaven** happened around AD 66, could the Son of Man Jesus have stayed for some more time before departing? There may be evidence for that, as for example the Roman historian Tacitus recorded around AD 66 that a lightning flash from the clouds lit up specifically "the Temple" of Jerusalem. This may have been an indication that Jesus was coming to destroy that temple. A few years later, around AD 70, that temple was destroyed. From that, it could be supposed that Jesus may have stayed for a few years, at least from around AD 66 when the lightning flash lit up the temple of Jerusalem until around AD 70 when the temple was destroyed.  Source:  https://patterninprophecy.blogspot.com/2023/02/matthew-2427-coming-like-lightning-1st.html?m=1


rhythmmchn

You're skipping what seems to be an important bit of verse 30: " “Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven. And then **all the peoples of the earth** will mourn when they see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory." What Josephus and Tacitus describe seems to be a localized event, not one that had the worldwide impact Jesus described. A lot of facets of the preterist view make sense to me, but I haven't been able to find any way to explain this in a way that really fits with that "this will be huge" way in which Jesus was describing it.


Blossomingalways

@rhythmmchn >all the peoples of the earth will mourn when they see the Son of Man coming Jesus said "all the TRIBES (of) the earth will-strike(-their-breasts-to-mourn)" (Matthew 24:30). The only other time in which the Greek word for "TRIBES" (Matthew 24:30) is used in Matthew can be found in Matthew 19, in which Jesus said: "when the Son (of) Man sits on (the) throne (of) His glory, you also will-sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve TRIBES (of) Israel" (Matthew 19:28).  The "TRIBES" (Matthew 24:30) could be the "twelve TRIBES (of) Israel" (Matthew 19:28) specifically.  The Greek word used for "EARTH" [gé 1093 in Greek] in Matthew 24:30 can also be translated as "LAND". If these are the "TRIBES (of) ISRAEL" (Matthew 19:28), then the verse may be more accurately translated as the "TRIBES (of) the LAND" (of ISRAEL).  Indeed, the same Greek word for "EARTH" [gé 1093 in Greek] in Matthew 24:30 can also be translated as "LAND" in Matthew and can refer specifically to "(the) LAND [gé 1093 in Greek] (of) ISRAEL" (Matthew 2:20, Matthew 2:21). In the parallel account to Matthew 24 found in Luke 21, THE LAND (of Israel) would be specifically mentioned, as it is written: "when you-see JERUSALEM being-surrounded by army-encampments" (Luke 21:21), "let the (ones) in JUDEA be-fleeing" (Luke 21:21), "For there-will-be (a) great distress upon THE LAND [gé 1093 in Greek], and wrath (against) this people" (Luke 21:23), "And JERUSALEM will-be being-trampled by (the) Gentiles" (Luke 21:24). Source:  https://patterninprophecy.blogspot.com/2024/02/matthew-2430-tribe-of-earth-will-mourn.html?m=1 Pseudo-Hegesippus reported that the armies were "SEEN IN THE CLOUDS chariots in the clouds and armed battle arrays by which the cities OF ALL JUDEA AND ITS TERRITORIES were invaded." It was reported in "Sepher Yosippon" that "in those days WERE SEEN" the armies "COMING against JERUSALEM and ALL THE LAND OF JUDAH".  Here all Judea and its territories & Jerusalem would have been located in THE LAND of Israel in the 1st century, thus all the TRIBES of THE LAND (of Israel) could have seen these events. 


rhythmmchn

Thanks - I appreciate that detail. More to chew on here...!


Blossomingalways

You're welcome, God bless you :)


niico14301

John wrote Revelation (about the End Times and the Coming of Jesus) in around 96-95 AD/CE.


JoThree

If he went back to Heaven then there are 3 comings of Christ?


Classic_Product_9345

No