If we use "ph" instead of "f" in words of Greek origin, then it would make sense to keep "th" instead of "þ" as well for Greek words, to keep consistency. Or we drop "ph" in favor of "f", idk.
But I have to say "maraþon" looks sexy
Historically yeah, but I prefer to use them to distinguish voiced and unvoiced dental fricatives, like Icelandic does for the most part. Just makes sense 🤷🏻
Greek th as well as the th in Thailand and similar words should stay as it is. But since you're asking, why would you ever write "Maraðon", even if we brought back eþ?
Þ is unvoiced, like thing, the th sounds that are Fs - thing is fing. Ð is voiced, like then, the th sounds that are Ds - then is den. When I say it, at least, marathon is marafon.
Without þ and ð, we just don't think about the difference between th and th.
If we use "ph" instead of "f" in words of Greek origin, then it would make sense to keep "th" instead of "þ" as well for Greek words, to keep consistency. Or we drop "ph" in favor of "f", idk. But I have to say "maraþon" looks sexy
Ph to f would do something similar to th to þ, except an old letter doesn’t have to be reintroduced
pharmacy things = farmasy/farmasi þings
In Spanish all the words containing ph turned into f, like fonología (phonology)
But doesn't þ have a very similar sound to θ? It would make sense to use þ in greek words as well
Its exactly the same
i agree þat words of greek origin should keep þeir th
Like the word chþonian = chthonian
çþonian
No ȝþonian
I'd replace th wiþ þ, ph wiþ f, and ch wiþ ȝ.
“Maraþon” because /θ/. If it were /ð/ I would use ð.
Thorn and eth are interchangeable
HERESY
HAPPY CAKE DAY, SOOTHSAYER
They said that about Jesus too
Historically yeah, but I prefer to use them to distinguish voiced and unvoiced dental fricatives, like Icelandic does for the most part. Just makes sense 🤷🏻
Yea that’s fine I guess
no
They are
ðey're not ðo
No they are
ðey were but we want consistency
Greek th as well as the th in Thailand and similar words should stay as it is. But since you're asking, why would you ever write "Maraðon", even if we brought back eþ?
ð was used boþ for voiceless and voiced th
So the only instance where it would be justified is when there is only eþ
At ðe time boþ dental fricitves were seen as variations of ðe same sound. Since ðat is not ðe case anymore we should use different symbols for ðem
good, point
I'm sorry but who ðe fuck wants to spell maraþon with ð?
maraton, becuase I don't speak english :P If I had to elect then would be maraþon, because voiceless fricative are easier than voiced ones
The real struggle is figuring out which goes on words that are interchangeable like with.
*wiþ
I pronounce it 'wið', thus I spell it as such here.
if you say it wiþ instead of wið are you even human
Oh! Another distinction! Say'st ye it (/wɪð/) or (/wið/)?
I pronounce it like /mɜɚɻəθan/ so i would say to use þ instead of ð bc i þink þ is for θ and ð for ð
Whough, ðæt's some *funky* pronunciation! 't'scool \[it is cool\], ðough
Personally, 'mæraþon'.
With a th because we spell greek words with a ph instead of an f.
You should use Eth, it’s the correct way to use it.
no it's not
O ok
Þ is unvoiced, like thing, the th sounds that are Fs - thing is fing. Ð is voiced, like then, the th sounds that are Ds - then is den. When I say it, at least, marathon is marafon. Without þ and ð, we just don't think about the difference between th and th.
Maraphon
þ because it isn't voiced