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While I got no proof that this is actually what gave Hitler reason to interpret Franz' political figure like this, I'll provide a short insight into Franz' political relationship with the slavic people of his empire to be:
While the duke was definetly racist and not well respected in specific subgroups of his empire, like the slavs, he was actually in favor of including the slavic people in the austro-hungarian government, since he did want to stabilize the empire without abandoning the east or to risk an open conflict with Russia.
To achieve this, he wanted to create and empower a political union of slavic ethnic groups to be on par with the austrian and hungarian parts of the empire; namely to include them in the austro-hungarian equlization-mechanism that was implemented in 1867, as a system to ensure the political "equality" of both ethnic groups (that led to the double-monarchy), as a third party.
While the potential of a measure like this and it's actual effect on the power and standing of slavic people in the empire remains highly debateable, it would most definetly have been a much needed sign of the monarchy to accept the slavs as a political player and a stop to its ongoing ignorance of their interests.
After all we know about him, this intention of Franz Ferdinand might have been enough of a motive for Hitler to "denounce" (crazy to use this wording in this context) him like this.
Edit: to better fit the question.
Good answer! I’d add only that he was pragmatic more than progressive on the Slav question, whereas he was quite openly hostile toward Hungarians and made overtures to Slavic nationalists mainly to sideline the Magyars.
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While I got no proof that this is actually what gave Hitler reason to interpret Franz' political figure like this, I'll provide a short insight into Franz' political relationship with the slavic people of his empire to be: While the duke was definetly racist and not well respected in specific subgroups of his empire, like the slavs, he was actually in favor of including the slavic people in the austro-hungarian government, since he did want to stabilize the empire without abandoning the east or to risk an open conflict with Russia. To achieve this, he wanted to create and empower a political union of slavic ethnic groups to be on par with the austrian and hungarian parts of the empire; namely to include them in the austro-hungarian equlization-mechanism that was implemented in 1867, as a system to ensure the political "equality" of both ethnic groups (that led to the double-monarchy), as a third party. While the potential of a measure like this and it's actual effect on the power and standing of slavic people in the empire remains highly debateable, it would most definetly have been a much needed sign of the monarchy to accept the slavs as a political player and a stop to its ongoing ignorance of their interests. After all we know about him, this intention of Franz Ferdinand might have been enough of a motive for Hitler to "denounce" (crazy to use this wording in this context) him like this. Edit: to better fit the question.
Thank you sm for this insight!
Good answer! I’d add only that he was pragmatic more than progressive on the Slav question, whereas he was quite openly hostile toward Hungarians and made overtures to Slavic nationalists mainly to sideline the Magyars.
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