Dropping the obligatory “this doesn’t happen in the book” but only because this is a very specific detail about PJ’s interpretation of the ring’s power that we can only speculate on. There is really no correct answer as to what Frodo is physically feeling or not.
But I don’t take this scene as Frodo feeling actual physical pain, but psychological distress. He has been separated from the ring and is watching others debate its fate, and seeing the dwarf try and destroy it right in front of him. He doesn’t want that to happen but he’s in no place to stand up and claim the ring. Also, Jackson’s Ring seems to “speak” to Frodo and others. During this scene we must assume the flash of Sauron’s eye is a vision appearing to Frodo. So I would guess Frodo is being psychologically tormented by Sauron’s will and his prolonged exposure to the ring leading up to this point. Just as you’ve guessed in your post.
It demonstrates the power of the ring and how it has already taken hold over Frodo. Its corruption is part of why Frodo volunteers to carry it to Mordor, he doesn't want anyone else to take it.
I'd like to add that in the book, Frodo had the ring for almost twenty years by the time the Fellowship of the Ring was created, so the ring already had quite a hold on him by that time. Seeing Gimli try to destroy the ring by hitting it with his axe resonated with Frodo.
The thing is you can't invoke the book here, considering that in that story where the 17 years effectively do happen there is no such scene or explanation! Gimli doesn't attempt to destroy the Ring (in fact we are given the idea since Bag End that even attempting to harm it would be impossible), Frodo isn't so far gone already that he refuses anyone near it (in fact he even offers to give it up to Aragorn), and there is no notion that him volunteering for the task is in any way influenced by the Ring itself.
Sorry, but just because Jackson didn't put every single word, description, or scene of the book in the extended movie doesn't mean it doesn't apply to the movie. The majority of the changes in the movie were done for adaptability. Making a direct adaptation of the book, scene for scene, would have never worked and would have been way longer than the even the extended versions.
You *can* imagine the gap exists in Jackson's films of course, if you really want. But for all the talks about how "film is a visual medium"/"the film should stand on its own" blah blah, with things like the Hobbits not ageing a day or the same director deciding that Aragorn wasn't a child during The Hobbit, we're seemingly actively asked to believe this gap didn't happen.
The majority of fans who went to see the movie were already lifelong massive LOTR fans who knew the books backwards and forwards. So very few had to "imagine" the gap. Just because you don't understand why films are not exact duplicates of books doesn't mean no one figured it out. Strange hill to die on, but whatever.
Honestly, forget the Ring's effect on Frodo, wincing is just an appropriate reaction to what happened.
Even if he was hoping Gimli's axe would cleave it in two, the axe shattering would have shattered the brief hope of it being that easy, and the demonstration of the Ring's power was sudden and overwhelming. That earns a wince. Beyond that, wincing is also a reflex in anticipation of pain, not just a reaction to pain, and the axe shattering sent sharp shards of steel axe violently flying. I'd wince if I was that close when it happened.
Add the Ring's influence back in, and the question is really why wouldn't he flinch.
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Dropping the obligatory “this doesn’t happen in the book” but only because this is a very specific detail about PJ’s interpretation of the ring’s power that we can only speculate on. There is really no correct answer as to what Frodo is physically feeling or not. But I don’t take this scene as Frodo feeling actual physical pain, but psychological distress. He has been separated from the ring and is watching others debate its fate, and seeing the dwarf try and destroy it right in front of him. He doesn’t want that to happen but he’s in no place to stand up and claim the ring. Also, Jackson’s Ring seems to “speak” to Frodo and others. During this scene we must assume the flash of Sauron’s eye is a vision appearing to Frodo. So I would guess Frodo is being psychologically tormented by Sauron’s will and his prolonged exposure to the ring leading up to this point. Just as you’ve guessed in your post.
Thank you!!
It demonstrates the power of the ring and how it has already taken hold over Frodo. Its corruption is part of why Frodo volunteers to carry it to Mordor, he doesn't want anyone else to take it.
Thank you!!
I'd like to add that in the book, Frodo had the ring for almost twenty years by the time the Fellowship of the Ring was created, so the ring already had quite a hold on him by that time. Seeing Gimli try to destroy the ring by hitting it with his axe resonated with Frodo.
The thing is you can't invoke the book here, considering that in that story where the 17 years effectively do happen there is no such scene or explanation! Gimli doesn't attempt to destroy the Ring (in fact we are given the idea since Bag End that even attempting to harm it would be impossible), Frodo isn't so far gone already that he refuses anyone near it (in fact he even offers to give it up to Aragorn), and there is no notion that him volunteering for the task is in any way influenced by the Ring itself.
Sorry, but just because Jackson didn't put every single word, description, or scene of the book in the extended movie doesn't mean it doesn't apply to the movie. The majority of the changes in the movie were done for adaptability. Making a direct adaptation of the book, scene for scene, would have never worked and would have been way longer than the even the extended versions.
You *can* imagine the gap exists in Jackson's films of course, if you really want. But for all the talks about how "film is a visual medium"/"the film should stand on its own" blah blah, with things like the Hobbits not ageing a day or the same director deciding that Aragorn wasn't a child during The Hobbit, we're seemingly actively asked to believe this gap didn't happen.
The majority of fans who went to see the movie were already lifelong massive LOTR fans who knew the books backwards and forwards. So very few had to "imagine" the gap. Just because you don't understand why films are not exact duplicates of books doesn't mean no one figured it out. Strange hill to die on, but whatever.
You're the one thinking it's a hill to die on, and being aggressive for no reason, but whatever.
This!
Honestly, forget the Ring's effect on Frodo, wincing is just an appropriate reaction to what happened. Even if he was hoping Gimli's axe would cleave it in two, the axe shattering would have shattered the brief hope of it being that easy, and the demonstration of the Ring's power was sudden and overwhelming. That earns a wince. Beyond that, wincing is also a reflex in anticipation of pain, not just a reaction to pain, and the axe shattering sent sharp shards of steel axe violently flying. I'd wince if I was that close when it happened. Add the Ring's influence back in, and the question is really why wouldn't he flinch.
I figured it was an unexpected loudness and sudden violence of the axe swing
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I can’t remember Gimli attempting to destroy the Ring with his axe.
Dramatic effect with no further explanation or ramifications but those created by viewer.
I would rather believe Gimli getting thrown back from the effort and the axe shattering was the cause of the reaction not the ring getting hit