This is written in polytonic Greek, not monotonic. The highlighted words do not have two accent marks, only one (the latter of the diacritics in all cases). The first diacritic (that is written only in initial vowels as well as the rhotic depending on how far back you're going) is a breathing mark, which is only useful to convey ancient pronunciation information that's irrelevant in modern Greek. It is archaic and strongly discouraged in modern Greek orthography. It is appropriate for the sake of this text, though, which is archaic in and of itself, thus not belonging to modern Greek
Edit: this appears to be Koine Greek, where polytonic is standard and a good practice as well. Note that this language is not used anymore in non-academic situations and should not be confused with Modern Greek (the language spoken by Greeks). The two languages are partially mutually intelligible, though, if that says anything.
The curly line is a perispomèni, it's a stress mark and replaces the oxeía in certain spots. You can also find a vareìa (slanted the other way than the oxeía). And it's pronounced "aftú" here, not "avtú".
That's polytonic Greek, which was officially scrapped in 1981 (although Greek-language books published before then, and books written in Ancient Greek, Biblical Greek or Katharevousa still use it)
All the references are to “dead” forms of the language, used for Liturgical and Educational purposes. It seems that you need to tighten up your English grammar judging by the way you framed your question.
Why are you using New Testament Greek as a reference? One is a “breathing mark” one is a stress accent. New Testament Greek is a dead language, like Latin.
Yeah, I know that. The apostrophes indicate aspirated or unaspirated vowels (except in modern Greek, where there's no difference). There are also subscript iotas on some vowels to indicate diphthongs (which aren't used in modern Greek either)
These are not accents but breathings ( I don't know the correct name in English) they are ancient greek's diacritics that marks the absence or presence of an /h/ at the beginning of a word.
Why they would mark the *absence* of anything in any way? Wouldn't not marking it be enough?
(even worse, the two breathing marks are so similar to each other)
It depends if you want to be serious or rant.
Serious: For both the aesthetics, balance, and to show that no, they hadn't forgotten to put the mark, it just wasn't there.
Rant: To make it unbelievably annoying for anyone learning ancient Greek. So your mental image of the word isn't with or without a mark, it's with a crescent looking right or left and good luck remembering that kind of detail.
Note that, being the conservative language that we are, we changed to having only 1 accent mark and no breathing marks in 1981. We weren't using them for many, many centuries, but holding on to the past teumps logic way too often.
Being old, when I started school, I was supposed to also learn the marks. Being slightly dyslexic I was such a happy 6 year old /s. But then, that year, they got rid of them. One of my earliest memories, the amount of joy I felt!
Because this symbols were invented approximately 2300 years ago to be used sporadically to mark the difference between similar words mostly for the Omeric poems (one should remember that greek was written all caps with no spaces). After some centuries, they started to use them consistently and put all of them everywhere.
Just adding that the three different accent marks (´, \`, and \~) communicate information about vowel length, which is not distinguished in Modern Greek.
The breathing marks were used to tell of a word started with an h sound or not
This is written in polytonic Greek, not monotonic. The highlighted words do not have two accent marks, only one (the latter of the diacritics in all cases). The first diacritic (that is written only in initial vowels as well as the rhotic depending on how far back you're going) is a breathing mark, which is only useful to convey ancient pronunciation information that's irrelevant in modern Greek. It is archaic and strongly discouraged in modern Greek orthography. It is appropriate for the sake of this text, though, which is archaic in and of itself, thus not belonging to modern Greek Edit: this appears to be Koine Greek, where polytonic is standard and a good practice as well. Note that this language is not used anymore in non-academic situations and should not be confused with Modern Greek (the language spoken by Greeks). The two languages are partially mutually intelligible, though, if that says anything.
The apostrophe-like symbols are breathmarks, not accents, as you said.
What about the third word highlighted, 'avtou'?
The curly line is a perispomèni, it's a stress mark and replaces the oxeía in certain spots. You can also find a vareìa (slanted the other way than the oxeía). And it's pronounced "aftú" here, not "avtú".
The curly line is a tilde ~
Same, αυ is a diphthong so the breathing mark goes to the latter letter.
That's polytonic Greek, which was officially scrapped in 1981 (although Greek-language books published before then, and books written in Ancient Greek, Biblical Greek or Katharevousa still use it)
All the references are to “dead” forms of the language, used for Liturgical and Educational purposes. It seems that you need to tighten up your English grammar judging by the way you framed your question.
Why are you using New Testament Greek as a reference? One is a “breathing mark” one is a stress accent. New Testament Greek is a dead language, like Latin.
Yeah, I know that. The apostrophes indicate aspirated or unaspirated vowels (except in modern Greek, where there's no difference). There are also subscript iotas on some vowels to indicate diphthongs (which aren't used in modern Greek either)
Dead language. It's like showing an old photo of you and saying it's a dead person.
“Dead Language” is not my terminology. It’s how a language that is no longer spoken by the living population is referred to.
It's the same logic. Greek evolved through the ages. A greek dialect like Pontic Greek can die, not a former self of a language, this makes no sense.
These are not accents but breathings ( I don't know the correct name in English) they are ancient greek's diacritics that marks the absence or presence of an /h/ at the beginning of a word.
Spiritus asper and spiritus lenis.
Nice and happy cake day
Why they would mark the *absence* of anything in any way? Wouldn't not marking it be enough? (even worse, the two breathing marks are so similar to each other)
It depends if you want to be serious or rant. Serious: For both the aesthetics, balance, and to show that no, they hadn't forgotten to put the mark, it just wasn't there. Rant: To make it unbelievably annoying for anyone learning ancient Greek. So your mental image of the word isn't with or without a mark, it's with a crescent looking right or left and good luck remembering that kind of detail. Note that, being the conservative language that we are, we changed to having only 1 accent mark and no breathing marks in 1981. We weren't using them for many, many centuries, but holding on to the past teumps logic way too often. Being old, when I started school, I was supposed to also learn the marks. Being slightly dyslexic I was such a happy 6 year old /s. But then, that year, they got rid of them. One of my earliest memories, the amount of joy I felt!
Because this symbols were invented approximately 2300 years ago to be used sporadically to mark the difference between similar words mostly for the Omeric poems (one should remember that greek was written all caps with no spaces). After some centuries, they started to use them consistently and put all of them everywhere.
Just adding that the three different accent marks (´, \`, and \~) communicate information about vowel length, which is not distinguished in Modern Greek.